do you suppose
Shakespeare
did not
compose only prose?
compose only prose?
Did he
think versing
would make understood
the need for diversity
whilst showing he could
make a good living
sans university?
the need for diversity
whilst showing he could
make a good living
sans university?
Or was
he,
semi-tutored but plucky,
semi-tutored but plucky,
a Warwickshire lad who got lucky?